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Question 1:

Which three CLI commands can you use to troubleshoot Layer 3 issues if the issue is in neither the physical layer nor the link layer? (Choose three.)

A. diagnose sys top

B. execute ping

C. execute traceroute

D. diagnose sniffer packet any

E. get system arp

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 2:

Which statement is correct regarding the security fabric?

A. FortiManager is one of the required member devices.

B. FortiGate devices must be operating in NAT mode.

C. A minimum of two Fortinet devices is required.

D. FortiGate Cloud cannot be used for logging purposes.

Correct Answer: B

FortiGate Security 7.2 Study Guide (p.428): “You must have a minimum of two FortiGate devices at the core of the Security Fabric, plus one FortiAnalyzer or cloud logging solution. FortiAnalyzer Cloud or FortiGate Cloud can act as the cloud logging solution. The FortiGate devices must be running in NAT mode.”


Question 3:

What are two features of collector agent advanced mode? (Choose two.)

A. In advanced mode, FortiGate can be configured as an LDAP client and group filters can be configured on FortiGate.

B. In advanced mode, security profiles can be applied only to user groups, not individual users.

C. Advanced mode uses the Windows convention–NetBios: Domain\Username.

D. Advanced mode supports nested or inherited groups.

Correct Answer: AD

In advanced mode, FortiGate can be configured as an LDAP client and group filters can be configured on FortiGate. This is true because advanced mode allows FortiGate to query the LDAP server directly for user information and group membership, without relying on the collector agent. This enables FortiGate to apply security policies based on LDAP group filters, which can be configured on FortiGate1 Advanced mode supports nested or inherited groups. This is true because advanced mode can handle complex group structures, such as nested groups or inherited groups, where a user belongs to a group that is a member of another group. This allows FortiGate to apply security policies based on the effective group membership of a user, not just the direct group membership1

FortiGate Infrastructure 7.2 Study Guide (p.146): “Also, advanced mode supports nested or inherited groups; that is, users can be members of subgroups that belong to monitored parent groups.” “In advanced mode, you can configure FortiGate as an LDAP client and configure the group filters on FortiGate. You can also configure group filters on the collector agent.”


Question 4:

Which two protocols are used to enable administrator access of a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

A. SSH

B. HTTPS

C. FTM

D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/hardening-your-fortigate/995103/buildingsecurity-into-fortios


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 status is up, but phase 2 fails to come up.

Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, which configuration change will bring phase 2 up?

A. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200.

B. On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256.

C. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2.

D. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Auto-negotiate.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/5.4.0/cookbook/168495


Question 6:

Which two settings can be separately configured per VDOM on a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

A. System time

B. FortiGuaid update servers

C. Operating mode

D. NGFW mode

Correct Answer: CD

C: “Operating mode is per-VDOM setting. You can combine transparent mode VDOM\’s with NAT mode VDOMs on the same physical Fortigate.

D:

“Inspection-mode selection has moved from VDOM to firewall policy, and the default inspection-mode is flow, so NGFW Mode can be changed from Profile-base (Default) to Policy-base directly in System > Settings from the VDOM” Page 125 of FortiGate_Infrastructure_6.4_Study_Guide


Question 7:

Which two statements describe how the RPF check is used? (Choose two.)

A. The RPF check is a mechanism that protects FortiGate and the network from IP spoofing attacks.

B. The RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

C. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session.

D. The RPF check is run on the first reply packet of any new session.

Correct Answer: AC

FortiGate Infrastructure 7.2 Study Guide (p.41): “The RPF check is a mechanism that protects FortiGate and your network from IP spoofing attacks by checking for a return path to the source in the routing table.” “FortiGate performs an RPF check only on the first packet of a new session. That is, after the first packet passes the RPF check and FortiGate accepts the session, FortiGate doesn\’t perform any additional RPF checks on that session.”

A. The RPF check is a mechanism that protects FortiGate and the network from IP spoofing attacks. This is true because the RPF check verifies that the source IP address of an incoming packet matches the reverse route for that address, meaning that the packet came from a legitimate source and not from an attacker who is trying to impersonate another host. This prevents IP spoofing attacks, where an attacker sends packets with a forged source IP address to bypass security policies or launch denial-of-service attacks1 C. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session. This is true because the RPF check is performed only once per session, on the first packet sent by either the client or the server, depending on the direction of the session initiation. This reduces the processing overhead and improves performance2


Question 8:

Which certificate value can FortiGate use to determine the relationship between the issuer and the certificate?

A. Subject Key Identifier value

B. SMMIE Capabilities value

C. Subject value

D. Subject Alternative Name value

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which timeout setting can be responsible for deleting SSL VPN associated sessions?

A. SSL VPN idle-timeout

B. SSL VPN http-request-body-timeout

C. SSL VPN login-timeout

D. SSL VPN dtls-hello-timeout

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiGate/Technical-Tip-SSL-VPN-disconnection-issues-when-connected-with/ta-p/207851#:~:text=By%20default%2C%20a%20SSL%2DVPN,hours%20due%20to%20auth%2Dtimeout

The SSL VPN idle-timeout setting determines how long an SSL VPN session can be inactive before it is terminated. When an SSL VPN session becomes inactive (for example, if the user closes the VPN client or disconnects from the network), the session timer begins to count down. If the timer reaches the idle-timeout value before the user reconnects or sends any new traffic, the session will be terminated and the associated resources (such as VPN tunnels and virtual interfaces) will be deleted.


Question 10:

Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.)

A. FortiGate polling

B. NetAPI

C. Novell API

D. WMI

E. WinSecLog

Correct Answer: BDE

FortiGate Infrastructure 7.2 Study Guide (p.127-128): “As previously stated, collector agent-based polling mode has three methods (or options) for collecting login information. The order on the slide from left to right shows most recommend to

least recommended:

(WMI, WinSecLog, and NetAPI)”

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD47732


Question 11:

View the exhibit.

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec.

B. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup.

C. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The TunnelA route is used only if the TunnelB VPN is down.

D. This is a redundant IPsec setup.

Correct Answer: CD

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.4/cookbook/632796/ospf-with-ipsec-vpn-for-network-redundancy


Question 12:

Which of the following statements about central NAT are true? (Choose two.)

A. IP tool references must be removed from existing firewall policies before enabling central NAT .

B. Central NAT can be enabled or disabled from the CLI only.

C. Source NAT, using central NAT, requires at least one central SNAT policy.

D. Destination NAT, using central NAT, requires a VIP object as the destination address in a firewall.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

FortiGate is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) and is applying web filtering and application control directly on the security policy.

Which two other security profiles can you apply to the security policy? (Choose two.)

A. Antivirus scanning

B. File filter

C. DNS filter

D. Intrusion prevention

Correct Answer: AD

Security policy: If the traffic is allowed as per the consolidated policy, FortiGate will then process it based on the security policy to analyze additional criteria, such as URL categories for web filtering and application control. Also, if enabled, the security policy further inspects traffic using security profiles such as IPS and AV.


Question 14:

Refer to the FortiGuard connection debug output.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A local FortiManager is one of the servers FortiGate communicates with.

B. One server was contacted to retrieve the contract information.

C. There is at least one server that lost packets consecutively.

D. FortiGate is using default FortiGuard communication settings.

Correct Answer: BD

FortiGate Security 7.2 Study Guide (p.287-288): “Flags: D (IP returned from DNS), I (Contract server contacted), T (being timed), F (failed)” “By default, FortiGate is configured to enforce the use of HTTPS port 443 to perform live filtering with FortiGuard or FortiManager. Other ports and protocols are available by disabling the FortiGuard anycast setting on the CLI.”


Question 15:

Which of the following are purposes of NAT traversal in IPsec? (Choose two.)

A. To detect intermediary NAT devices in the tunnel path.

B. To dynamically change phase 1 negotiation mode aggressive mode.

C. To encapsulation ESP packets in UDP packets using port 4500.

D. To force a new DH exchange with each phase 2 rekey.

Correct Answer: AC


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