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Question 1:
A network engineer turned on logging to assist with troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue. Which of the following would provide the network engineer with the most informative log information?
A. FATAL
B. ERROR
C. DEBUG
D. WARN
Correct Answer: C
In logging levels, DEBUG provides the most detailed and informative information for troubleshooting. Different logging levels serve various purposes:
– FATAL: Indicates a very severe error that will lead to a program\’s termination.
– ERROR: Indicates a less severe error, but still a problem that requires attention.
– WARN (Warning): Indicates a potential issue that does not necessarily cause an error but should be noted.
– DEBUG: Provides detailed information about the program\’s operation for debugging purposes. DEBUG logs are typically used during troubleshooting to gain insights into the system\’s behavior. Therefore, if the network engineer is troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue, enabling DEBUG-level logging would provide the most detailed information for analysis.
Question 2:
SIMULATION
You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.
Requirements:
Datacenter
-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage
-Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A
-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage
-Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users
-Add an additional mobile user
-Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet
-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage
–
Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic
–
Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic
INSTRUCTIONS
Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.
Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag and Drop menu.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
A. See explanation below.
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A
Top left subnet
206.208.134.0/28 Top right subnet
10.72.63.0/28 Bottom subnet
192.168.11.0/28
Screened Subnet devices
Web server, FTP server Building A devices
SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left DataCenter devices
DNS server.
Question 3:
A technician needs to verify an Ethernet run is functioning properly. Which of the following tools should be used?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Crimper
C. Cable tester
D. Punch down tool
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
A company wants to mitigate unauthorized physical connectivity after implementing a hybrid work schedule. Which of the following will the company MOST likely configure?
A. Intrusion prevention system
B. DHCP snooping
C. ARP inspection
D. Port security
Correct Answer: D
Port security is a feature that allows network administrators to control which devices can connect to specific switch ports. By configuring port security, the company can limit the number of authorized devices that can be connected to each switch port, preventing unauthorized physical connectivity.
Question 5:
A network administrator is planning a WLAN for a soccer stadium and was advised to use MU-MIMO to improve connection performance in high-density areas. The project requires compatibility with clients connecting using 2.4GHz or 5GHz frequencies.
Which of the following would be the BEST wireless standard for this project?
A. 80211ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 80211n
Correct Answer: B
802.11a – 5GHZ 802.11b – 2.4GHZ 802.11g – 2.4GHZ 802.11n – 2.4/5GHZ MIMO 802.11ac – 5GHZ MU-MIMO 802.11ax – 2.4/5/6GHZ MU-MIMO
Question 6:
After HVAC failures caused network outages, the support team decides to monitor the temperatures of all the devices. The network administrator cannot find a command that will display this information. Which of the following will retrieve the necessary information?
A. SNMP OID values
B. NetFlow data export
C. Network baseline configurations
D. Security information and event management
Correct Answer: A
The network administrator can use the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to monitor the temperatures of all the devices. SNMP is a widely-used protocol for managing and monitoring network devices, such as routers, switches, servers, and other networking equipment. SNMP allows network administrators to gather information about the performance and status of devices on the network, including temperature readings. To retrieve the temperature information, the administrator will have to configure SNMP on the devices and configure SNMP manager software on their computer. Once the SNMP manager software is configured, it will be able to send SNMP requests to the devices and retrieve information such as temperature, voltage, fan speeds, etc. Many network devices have built-in SNMP support, and the administrator may also need to install SNMP agent software on the devices to enable SNMP monitoring. The administrator can also use some specific command or tool like IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management Interface) or DCIM (Data Center Infrastructure Management) tools for monitoring the temperatures of all the devices.
Question 7:
A technician needs to map the path of a PC to the router. Which of the following tools should the technician use to accomplish this task?
A. traceroute
B. ping
C. ifconfig
D. netstat
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Which of the following attacks encrypts user data and requires a proper backup implementation to recover?
A. DDoS
B. Phishing
C. Ransomware
D. MAC spoofing
Correct Answer: C
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts user data and demands a ransom for its decryption. Ransomware can prevent users from accessing their files and applications, and cause data loss or corruption. A proper backup implementation is essential to recover from a ransomware attack, as it can help restore the encrypted data without paying the ransom or relying on the attackers\’ decryption key.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware
Question 9:
A new application is being deployed. The application team has asked the network team to monitor network performance and create alerts if fluctuations in the round-trip time for that traffic occur. Which of the following should the network team monitor to meet this requirement?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Loss
D. Jitter
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
Which of the following is the LARGEST MTU for a standard Ethernet frame?
A. 1452
B. 1492
C. 1500
D. 2304
Correct Answer: C
The largest MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) for a standard Ethernet frame is 1500 bytes.
Question 11:
A company is undergoing expansion but does not have sufficient rack space in its data center.
Which of the following would be BEST to allow the company to host its new equipment without a major investment in facilities?
A. Using a colocation service
B. Using available rack space in branch offices
C. Using a flat network topology
D. Reorganizing the network rack and installing top-of-rack switching
Correct Answer: A
A colocation service is a service that provides rack space, power, cooling, security, and connectivity for a company\’s network equipment in a data center. A colocation service can be used when a company does not have sufficient rack space
in its own data center and does not want to invest in building or expanding its own facilities. By using a colocation service, a company can host its new equipment in a professional and reliable environment without a major investment in
facilities. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 414)
Question 12:
A false camera is installed outside a building to assist with physical security. Which of the following is the device assisting?
A. Detection
B. Recovery
C. Identification
D. Prevention
Correct Answer: D
The false camera is seen by people. They think it is real and this prevents them from doing something wrong.
Question 13:
The following instructions were published about the proper network configuration for a videoconferencing device:
“Configure a valid static RFC1918 address accordingly to your network. Check the option to use a connection over NAT”.
Which of the following is a valid IP address configuration for the device?
A. FE80::1
B. 100.64.0.1
C. 169.254.1.2
D. 172.19.0.2
E. 224.0.0.12
Correct Answer: D
172.19.0.2 is a valid IP address configuration for the device that uses a static RFC1918 address for the network and allows for a connection over NAT (Network Address Translation). RFC1918 addresses are private IP addresses that are not routable on the public Internet and are used for internal networks. The RFC1918 address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. NAT is a technique that translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses when communicating with external networks, such as the Internet. FE80::1 is an IPv6 link-local address that is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 100.64.0.1 is an IPv4 address that belongs to the shared address space range (100.64.0.0/10) that is used for carrier-grade NAT (CGN) between service providers and subscribers, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 169.254.1.2 is an IPv4 link-local address that is automatically assigned by a device when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server or manual configuration, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 224.0.0.12 is an IPv4 multicast address that is used for VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT.
Question 14:
An administrator is investigating reports of network slowness in a building. While looking at the uplink interface statistics In the switch\’s CLI, the administrator discovers the uplink Is at 100% utilization However, the administrator is unsure how to Identify what traffic is causing the saturation. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize to identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic?
A. SNMP
B. Traps
C. Syslog
D. NetFlow
Correct Answer: D
To identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic causing network saturation, the network administrator should use a network protocol analyzer that supports the NetFlow protocol. NetFlow is a network protocol that collects IP traffic information as it enters or exits an interface and sends it to a NetFlow collector for analysis. This data includes the source and destination addresses of the traffic, the ports used, and the number of bytes and packets transferred. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, NetFlow. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd Lammle (Chapter 6: Network Devices)
Question 15:
Given the following information:
Which of the following command-line tools would generate this output?
A. netstat
B. arp
C. dig
D. tracert
Correct Answer: A
-The “netstat” command displays network connections, routing tables, and network interface statistics.
–
The “dig” (Domain Information Groper) command is used for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping.
-The “arp” (Address Resolution Protocol) command is used to view and manage the ARP cache, which contains mapping information between IP addresses and their corresponding physical (MAC) addresses on a network.
–
The “tracert” (or traceroute) command is used to determine the path that packets take from the source device to the destination device on an IP network