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Question 1:
A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the virtual memory allocation, which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days.
The administrator runs an analysis tool and sees the following output:
==3214== timeAttend.exe analyzed
==3214== ERROR SUMMARY:
==3214== malloc/free: in use at exit: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks.
==3214== checked 82116 bytes
==3214== definitely lost: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks.
The administrator terminates the timeAttend.exe, observes system performance over the next few days, and notices that the system performance does not degrade.
Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?
A. DLL injection
B. API attack
C. Buffer oveiflow
D. Memory leak
Correct Answer: D
Definitely memory leak \’ key sentence\’ -> The administrator increases the virtual memory allocation, which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days. Memory leak occurs when programmers create a memory in heap and forget to delete it.
The consequences of memory leak is that it reduces the performance of the computer by reducing the amount of available memory. Eventually, in the worst case, too much of the available memory may become allocated and all or part of the system or device stops working correctly, the application fails, or the system slows down vastly .
Question 2:
Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)
A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software
Correct Answer: DE
E. Vendors/supply chain: Supply chain attacks, where attackers compromise vendors or suppliers to introduce vulnerabilities into the software supply chain, are a significant concern. This can result in vulnerable code making its way into the final software releases.
D. Included third-party libraries: Third-party libraries are often used in software development to expedite the process. However, if these libraries contain vulnerabilities or are not kept up-to-date, they can introduce security flaws into the software.
Question 3:
The spread of misinformation surrounding the outbreak of a novel virus on election day led to eligible voters choosing not to take the risk of going the polls. This is an example of:
A. prepending
B. An influence campaign
C. A watering-hole attack.
D. Intimidation.
E. Information elicitation.
Correct Answer: B
From Chapter 1 Social Engineering Techniques Influence campaigns involve the use of collected information and selective publication of material to key individuals in an attempt to alter perceptions and change people\’s minds on a topic. One can engage in an influence campaign against a single person, but the effect is limited. Influence campaigns are even more powerful when used in conjunction with social media to spread influence through influencer propagation. Influencers are people who have large followings of people who read what they post, and in many cases act in accordance or agreement. This results in an amplifying mechanism, where single pieces of disinformation can be rapidly spread and build a following across the Internet.
Reference: https://www.darpa.mil/program/influence-campaign-awareness-and-sensemaking
Question 4:
A security operations analyst is using the company\’s SIEM solution to correlate alerts. Which of the following stages of the incident response process is this an example of?
A. Eradication
B. Recovery
C. Identification
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: C
C: Identification
Incident response lifecycle:
-preparation
-detection and analysis
-containment, eradication, recovery
-post-incident activity
Question 5:
Which of the following threat vectors would appear to be the most legitimate when used by a malicious actor to impersonate a company?
A. Phone call
B. Instant message
C. Email
D. Text message
Correct Answer: C
Email is a commonly used vector for phishing attacks and impersonation because it allows attackers to craft convincing messages that may appear to come from a legitimate company or source. Malicious actors can use various tactics, such as spoofed email addresses, convincing logos, and language that mimics official communications, to deceive recipients into believing that the email is legitimate. This can make email-based impersonation highly effective, and it\’s why email phishing is a prevalent method for cyberattacks.
Question 6:
A security team received the following requirements for a new BYOD program that will allow employees to use personal smartphones to access business email:
1.
Sensitive customer data must be safeguarded.
2.
Documents from managed sources should not be opened in unmanaged destinations.
3.
Sharing of managed documents must be disabled.
4.
Employees should not be able to download emailed images to their devices.
5.
Personal photos and contact lists must be kept private.
6.
IT must be able to remove data from lost/stolen devices or when an employee no longer works for the company. Which of the following are the best features to enable to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Remote wipe
B. VPN connection
C. Biometric authentication
D. Device location tracking
E. Geofencing
F. Application approve list
G. Containerization
Correct Answer: AG
Containerization: Containerization involves creating a separate and secure container or workspace on the device for business applications and data. This allows for the isolation of business data from personal data and enables better control over the business-related activities on the device. Remote wipe: Remote wipe is a crucial security feature that allows the IT team to remotely erase all data on a lost or stolen device. This helps in safeguarding sensitive customer data and ensuring that company information does not fall into the wrong hands
Question 7:
A company uses wireless tor all laptops and keeps a very detailed record of its assets, along with a comprehensive list of devices that are authorized to be on the wireless network. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about a script kiddie potentially using an unauthorized device to brute force the wireless PSK and obtain access to the internal network. Which of the following should the company implement to BEST prevent this from occurring?
A. A BPDU guard
B. WPA-EAP
C. IP filtering
D. A WIDS
Correct Answer: B
“EAP is in wide use. For example, in IEEE 802.11 (WiFi) the WPA and WPA2 standards have adopted IEEE 802.1X (with various EAP types) as the canonical authentication mechanism.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ Extensible_Authentication_Protocol
Question 8:
Due to unexpected circumstances, an IT company must vacate its main office, forcing all operations to alternate, off-site locations. Which of the following will the company MOST likely reference for guidance during this change?
A. The business continuity plan
B. The retention policy
C. The disaster recovery plan
D. The incident response plan
Correct Answer: A
BCP is to empower an organization to keep crucial functions running during downtime. This, in turn, helps the organization respond quickly to an interruption, while creating resilient operational protocols.
Question 9:
Which of the following BEST describes the method a security analyst would use to confirm a file that is downloaded from a trusted security website is not altered in transit or corrupted using a verified checksum?
A. Hashing
B. Salting
C. Integrity
D. Digital signature
Correct Answer: A
File verification, also known as hashing, is the process of checking that a file you have on your machine is identical to the source file… When you hash a file, you are left with a checksum, a random alpha numeric string with a set length. Hashing a file doesn\’t encrypt the file and you can\’t take a checksum and run it back through an algorithm to get the original source file.
Question 10:
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has requested that a third-party vendor provide supporting documents that show proper controls are in place to protect customer data. Which of the following would be BEST for the third-party vendor to provide to the CISO?
A. GDPR compliance attestation
B. Cloud Security Alliance materials
C. SOC 2 Type 2 report
D. NIST RMF workbooks
Correct Answer: C
GDPR related to EU nothing in question to say they are in EU. SOC type 2 : tests security controls in place https://www.itgovernance.co.uk/soc-reporting
Question 11:
Which of the following allows for functional test data to be used in new systems for testing and training purposes to protect the read data?
A. Data encryption
B. Data masking
C. Data deduplication
D. Data minimization
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
A security architect is designing the new outbound internet for a small company. The company would like all 50 users to share the same single Internet connection. In addition, users will not be permitted to use social media sites or external email services while at work.
Which of the following should be included in this design to satisfy these requirements? (Select TWO).
A. DLP
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT
D. VPN
E. Content filler
F. WAF
Correct Answer: CD
NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technology that allows multiple devices to share a single IP address, allowing them to access the internet while still maintaining security and privacy. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices, allowing users to access the internet and other network resources securely and privately. Additionally, VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, such as social media sites and external email services.
Question 13:
A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online. Which of the following would best prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur?
A. Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest.
B. Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers.
C. Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web.
D. Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels.
Correct Answer: A
S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a technology that provides end-to-end encryption for email messages. When S/MIME is implemented, email messages are encrypted while at rest on the email server, making it difficult for an attacker to access the content even if they gain unauthorized access to the mail servers.
Therefore, implementing S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest would be the best option to prevent email contents from being released in case of another breach.
Question 14:
Which of the following is a security implication of newer ICS devices that are becoming more common in corporations?
A. Devices with cellular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls
B. Many devices do not support elliptic-curve encryption algorithms due to the overhead they require
C. These devices often lack privacy controls and do not meet newer compliance regulations
D. Unauthorized voice and audio recording can cause loss of intellectual property
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
When planning to build a virtual environment, an administrator needs to achieve the following:
1.
Establish policies to limit who can create new VMs.
2.
Allocate resources according to actual utilization.
3.
Require justification for requests outside of the standard requirements.
4.
Create standardized categories based on size and resource requirements.
Which of the following is the administrator MOST likely trying to do?
A. Implement IaaS replication
B. Product against VM escape
C. Deploy a PaaS
D. Avoid VM sprawl
Correct Answer: D
from the comptia official textbook: “VM sprawl occurs when an organization deploys numerous virtual machines without an overarching IT management or security plan in place. Although VMs are easy to create and clone, they have the same licensing and security management requirements as a metalinstalled OS. Uncontrolled VM creation can quickly lead to a situation where manual oversight cannot keep up with system demand. To prevent or avoid VM sprawl, a policy for developing and deploying VMs must be established and enforced. This should include establishing a library of initial or foundation VM images that are to be used to develop and deploy new services. In some instances, VM sprawl relates to the use of lower-powered equipment that results in poorly performing VMs.”