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Question 1:
A network administrator determines that even when optimal wireless coverage is configured, the network users still report constant disconnections After troubleshooting, the administrator determines that moving from one location to another causes the disconnection.
Which of the following settings should provide better network stability?
A. Client association timeout
B. RSSl roaming threshold
C. RF attenuation ratio
D. EIRP power setting
Correct Answer: B
In this case, the most likely cause of the constant disconnections when moving from one location to another is likely due to a problem with the roaming functionality of the wireless network. The setting that would likely provide better network stability in this situation is the RSSI roaming threshold, which determines the signal strength required for a client device to remain connected to the wireless network. If the roaming threshold is set too low, the client device may disconnect and reconnect to the network too frequently as it moves between different access points. On the other hand, if the threshold is set too high, the client device may not roam to a new access point when necessary, leading to a loss of connectivity. Adjusting the RSSI roaming threshold to an appropriate value may help to improve the stability of the wireless network in this situation.
Question 2:
Which of the following would MOST likely utilize PoE?
A. A camera
B. A printer
C. A hub
D. A modem
Correct Answer: A
The device that would MOST likely utilize PoE is a camera1. A camera is an example of a powered device (PD) that can receive both data and power from a single Ethernet cable connected to a power sourcing equipment (PSE), such as a switch or an injector. PoE cameras are commonly used for security and surveillance purposes, as they can reduce the cost and complexity of installation and maintenance. PoE cameras can support various features, such as motion detection, night vision, pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ), and remote control
Question 3:
Users at an office site notice the wireless network is unavailable for a short period after a brownout. Which of the following technologies is MOST cost effective to sustain network equipment during a brief power event?
A. UPS
B. Dual power supplies
C. Generator
D. Redundant circuits
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Branch users are experiencing issues with videoconferencing. Which of the following will the company MOST likely configure to improve performance for these applications?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
B. Dynamic routing
C. Quality of service
D. Network load balancer
E. Static IP addresses
Correct Answer: C
Qualityof Service (QoS) can be configured for latency-sensitive applications, such as Voice over IP (VoIP).
Question 5:
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to improve the availability of a company\’s SQL database. Which of the following technologies should be utilized to achieve maximum availability?
A. Clustering
B. Port aggregation
C. NIC teaming
D. Snapshots
Correct Answer: A
Clustering is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers or instances together to provide high availability and fault tolerance for a database. Clustering can help improve the availability of a SQL database by allowing automatic failover
and load balancing between the cluster nodes. If one node fails or becomes overloaded, another node can take over the database operations without disrupting the service.
References: https://www.educba.com/sql-cluster/
Question 6:
A network administrator received a report staling a critical vulnerability was detected on an application that is exposed to the internet. Which of the following Is the appropriate NEXT step?
A. Check for the existence of a known exploit in order to assess the risk
B. Immediately shut down the vulnerable application server.
C. Install a network access control agent on the server.
D. Deploy a new server to host the application.
Correct Answer: A
The appropriate next step in this situation would be to check for the existence of a known exploit in order to assess the risk. This is important because it will help the network administrator determine the severity of the vulnerability and the potential impact it could have on the organization. Once the network administrator has assessed the risk, they can then take appropriate action to address the vulnerability. This might include patching the application, deploying a new server to host the application, or implementing other security measures to mitigate the risk. It is generally not advisable to immediately shut down the vulnerable application server, as this could disrupt business operations and cause significant downtime. Similarly, installing a network access control agent on the server may not be the most effective solution, as it would not address the underlying vulnerability.
Question 7:
A network administrator is adding a new switch to the network. Which of the following network hardening techniques would be BEST to use once the switch is in production?
A. Disable unneeded ports
B. Disable SSH service
C. Disable MAC filtering
D. Disable port security
Correct Answer: A
Disabling unused ports can stop a bad guy from plugging a malicious device into an unused port and getting unauthorized access to the network. It can also help train users-especially those in remote offices-to call IT before moving things around. After a few go-rounds of plugging a computer into an empty port and having it not work, most people will take the hint that they need to call IT first.
Question 8:
Which of the following is an invalid MAC address?
A. AA:CE:58:FD:90:08
B. 44:98:3E:F8:33:23
C. 56:AD:BX:89:55:54
D. 94:9E:FE:EE:8C:DF
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
A network technician is installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. Which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use to perform this task?
A. RDP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A
Remote Desktop Protocol is used to installed software while FTP is for file transfer
Question 10:
A PC and a network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping command from a Windows workstation while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?
A. ping -w
B. ping -i
C. ping -s
D. ping -t
Correct Answer: D
The ping -t command is used in the Windows command prompt (CMD) to continuously ping a target IP address or domain name until the command is manually stopped by the user. The -t option essentially creates an ongoing loop of ping requests, providing a real-time display of round-trip times and potential packet loss. This can be useful for monitoring network stability and diagnosing intermittent connectivity issues over an extended period.
Question 11:
A network administrator needs to run a single command-line tool capable of displaying routing table and multicast memberships. Which of the following would BEST help the administrator achieve the requirements?
A. arp
B. show route
C. show config
D. netstate
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
A network technician is responding to an issue with a local company. To which of 0>e following documents should the network technician refer to determine the scope of the issue
A. MTTR
B. MOU
C. NDA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: D
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service that the provider will deliver. It typically includes details on the scope of the service being provided, the availability and performance of the service, and any support or maintenance that is included.
The Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a measure of the time it takes to repair a failed component or system. It is not directly related to determining the scope of an issue.
A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is a formal agreement between two or more parties that outlines the terms and conditions of their relationship. It is not typically used to determine the scope of an issue.
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a legal document that prohibits the disclosure of confidential information. It is not related to determining the scope of an issue.
Question 13:
A network administrator is getting reports of some internal users who cannot connect to network resources. The users slate they were able to connect last week, but not today. No changes have been configured on the network devices or server during the last few weeks. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. The client DHCP scope is fully utilized
B. The wired network is experiencing electrical interference
C. The captive portal is down and needs to be restarted
D. SNMP traps are being received
E. The packet counter on the router interface is high.
Correct Answer: A
The issue because if the DHCP scope is fully utilized, it means there are no more available IP addresses for new devices to receive and connect to the network. This could prevent internal users from connecting to network resources.
Question 14:
An infrastructure company is implementing a cabling solution to connect sites on multiple continents. Which of the following cable types should the company use for this project?
A. Cat 7
B. Single-mode
C. Multimode
D. Cat 6
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
An IDS was installed behind the edge firewall after a network was breached. The network was then breached again even though the IDS logged the attack. Which of the following should be used in place of these devices to prevent future attacks?
A. A network tap
B. A proxy server
C. A UTM appliance
D. A content filter
Correct Answer: C
A UTM appliance stands for Unified Threat Management appliance, which is a device that combines multiple security functions into one solution. A UTM appliance can provide firewall, IDS/IPS, antivirus, VPN, web filtering, and other security features. A network technician can use a UTM appliance in place of an edge firewall and an IDS to prevent future attacks, as a UTM appliance can block malicious traffic and detect and respond to intrusions more effectively. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-utm