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Question 1:
An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows. What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?
A. sniffing the packets between the two hosts
B. sending continuous pings
C. overflowing the buffer\’s memory
D. inserting malicious commands into the database
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?
A. aaa authentication login console ise
B. aaa authentication enable default enable
C. aaa authorization network default group ise
D. aaa authorization exec default ise
Correct Answer: C
Question 3:
What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?
A. HTTPS file upload site
B. Microsoft Windows network shares
C. SQL database injections
D. encrypted SMTP
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
What features does Cisco FTDv provide over Cisco ASAv?
A. Cisco FTDv runs on VMWare while ASAv does not
B. Cisco FTDv provides 1GB of firewall throughput while Cisco ASAv does not
C. Cisco FTDv runs on AWS while ASAv does not
D. Cisco FTDv supports URL filtering while ASAv does not
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?
A. Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is injected into a database, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is injected into a browser.
B. Cross-site Scripting is a brute force attack targeting remote sites, whereas SQL Injection is a social engineering attack.
C. Cross-site Scripting is when executives in a corporation are attacked, whereas SQL Injection is when a database is manipulated.
D. Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is executed from the server side, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is executed from the client side.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?
A. To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.
B. A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.
C. NSEL can be used without a collector configured.
D. A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1
B. DMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2
C. FlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2
D. FlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?
A. Certificate Trust List
B. Endpoint Trust List
C. Enterprise Proxy Service
D. Secured Collaboration Proxy
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/special/unified-communications/guide/unified-comm/unified-comm-tlsproxy.html
Question 9:
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. Correlation
B. Intrusion
C. Access Control
D. Network Discovery
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc- configguide-v64/introduction_to_network_discovery_and_identity.html
Question 10:
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona
Correct Answer: BD
The profiling service issues the change of authorization in the following cases:?Endpoint deleted–When an endpoint is deleted from the Endpoints page and the endpoint is disconnectedor removed from the network.An exception action is configured–If you have an exception action configured per profile that leads to anunusual or an unacceptable event from that endpoint. The profiling service moves the endpoint to thecorresponding static profile by issuing a CoA.?An endpoint is profiled for the first time–When an endpoint is not statically assigned and profiled for the first time; for example, the profile changes from an unknown to a known profile.+ An endpoint identity group has changed–When an endpoint is added or removed from an endpoint identity group that is used by an authorization policy.The profiling service issues a CoA when there is any change in an endpoint identity group, and the endpoint identity group is used in the authorization policy for the following: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html
Question 11:
Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)
A. Time-based one-time passwords
B. Data loss prevention
C. Heuristic-based filtering
D. Geolocation-based filtering
E. NetFlow
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11- 0/user_guide_fs/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_00.html
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?
A. No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.
B. The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.
C. Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.
D. Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration.
The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?
A. when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection
B. when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed
C. when there is no firewall on the network
D. when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities
Correct Answer: D
Endpoint protection platforms (EPP) prevent endpoint security threats like known and unknown malware.Endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions can detect and respond to threats that your EPP and other security tools did not catch.EDR and EPP have similar goals but are designed to fulfill different purposes. EPP is designed to providedevice-level protection by identifying malicious files, detecting potentially malicious activity, and providing tools for incident investigation and response.The preventative nature of EPP complements proactive EDR. EPP acts as the first line of defense, filtering out attacks that can be detected by the organization\’s deployed security solutions. EDR acts as a second layer of protection, enabling security analysts to perform threat hunting and identify more subtle threats to the endpoint.Effective endpoint defense requires a solution that integrates the capabilities of both EDR and EPP to provide protection against cyber threats without overwhelming an organization\’s security team.
Question 15:
What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?
A. Cisco ASA provides access control while Cisco Firepower does not.
B. Cisco Firepower provides identity-based access control while Cisco ASA does not.
C. Cisco Firepower natively provides intrusion prevention capabilities while Cisco ASA does not.
D. Cisco ASA provides SSL inspection while Cisco Firepower does not.
Correct Answer: C